HRM 323 FINAL EXAM GUIDE (UOP COURSE)
HRM 323 Final Exam
Instructions: Complete the answer key in MS Excel and upload to the course materials forum.
Failure to use the MS Excel Answer Sheet will result in a Zero for the assignment. This exam is
open book and there are no time constraints. Do not share this exam with others or work
together. This is an individual assignment.
1. The five levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, in order from lowest to highest, are:
a. Psychological, safety and security, acceptance, esteem, and self-actualization
b. Physiological, safety and security, self-esteem, acceptance, and actualization
c. Safety and security, psychological, acceptance, esteem, and self-actualization
d. Physiological, safety and security, acceptance, esteem, and self-actualization
2. A manager should not intervene in the following conflict:
a. Two employees become animated as they share dramatically different
viewpoints on how to resolve a workflow problem
b. Two employees have been griping at one another for the past week, whereas
previously they had worked well together
c. An employee shoves another employee hard against a locker
d. Two employees continue to argue with one another about a troublesome
workflow problem, causing a distraction among other workers
3. The five ways that we typically respond to conflict are:
a. Compromise, avoid, acquiesce, collaborate, compete
b. Compete, compare, compromise, avoid, alternate
c. Avoid, collaborate, accommodate, compete, compromise
d. Compromise, avoid, accelerate, accommodate, compare
4. At its heart, conflict involves the following three elements:
a. Dependent parties, incompatible interests, and competition
b. Perception of conflict, independent parties, and incompatible interests
c. Two or more parties, competition, and perception of mutual interests
d. Incompatible interests, competition, and interdependent parties
5. Which example below most accurately reflects a negotiator engaging in integrative
negotiation?
a. The negotiator stands firm on his commitments, is not overly friendly, and
probes the other party as to why she believes her proposed solutions will resolve
the issue. He suggests some alternatives.
b. The negotiator is friendly and easygoing but does not budge when the other
party suggests alternative solutions. He suggests that the other party’s
alternatives are unworkable but doesn’t say why.
c. The negotiator is open to listening to alternative solutions suggested by the
other party but offers no alternatives of his own. He is reserved, quiet, and
serious.
d. The negotiator offers alternatives, which seem self-serving. When the other
party notes this, he scoffs and says they are much better than any alternative
she has suggested. He is otherwise flamboyant and gregarious.
6. Which of the following is one of the three channels of communication?
a. Verbal
b. Concrete object
c. Abstract conceptualization
d. Visual
7. Through which channel do we mostly communicate?
a. The non-verbal channel
b. The para-verbal channel
c. The visual channel
d. None of the above are correct
8. Having feelings, expressing them, hearing them, and responding to them is the meaning of
which of the following?
a. Understanding
b. Concrete object
c. Sympathy
d. Empathy
9. The window on behavior helps us identify:
a. Solutions to problems
b. Problem ownership
c. Major issues that create conflict
d. Roadblocks to effective conflict resolution
10. If you label a behavior as being unacceptable, who “owns� the problem?
a. No one
b. You
c. The other person whose behavior is unacceptable
d. Both you and the person whose behavior is unacceptable
11. One of the best ways to encourage another person to listen to you is to:
a. Listen to her first
b. Rehearse what you will say before confronting the other person about a problem
c. Change your attitude and forget about the problem
d. Communicate your feelings verbally and not behaviorally
12. Which of the following issues would be inappropriate for you to mediate?
a. Another supervisor asks you to mediate a dispute between two employees that
she manages.
b. Two employees that you manage are having difficulty working together. You
have evaluated one employee more favorably than the other based on superior
work performance. Neither employee has received recent discipline.
c. An employee that you manage is in conflict with an employee that another
supervisor manages. The other supervisor is upset with her employee and
defers to you to mediate the issue.
d. Two employees are arguing over a trivial issue. You believe disciplining one of
them may be appropriate because you believe he instigated the argument.
13. When a party is telling his or her story, as a mediator, you should do all the following
except:
a. Remind the other party of the ground rules if he or she is not following them.
b. Ask open-ended questions.
c. Offer tentative proposals, and ask the party to respond to them.
d. Take notes in order to follow up later with questions.
14. When a dispute arises between two employees, one employee expresses reluctance to
engage in mediation. To encourage the employee to engage in mediation, you
should do all the following except:
a. Explain the benefits of mediation for improving the work relationship.
b. Frame the request as an invitation.
c. Explain your expectations regarding teamwork.
d. Respond to the party’s legitimate concerns about meeting with the other party.
15. “Positive discipline� is:
a. The process a manager goes through to evaluate a disciplinary action he is about
to invoke to be certain that the discipline is appropriate
b. The process of giving a reminder to an employee regarding a work rule or
conduct expectation and giving her time to think about whether she feels she
can continue to work for the organization and abide by the rule or expectation
violated
c. The new teaching with respect to how a manager should offer support and
compassion when he or she issues progressive discipline
d. An oxymoron
16. When responding to someone who becomes angry after you have delivered an assertive
confrontation message, you should not:
a. Ask him to take a short break and then return so you can discuss the matter
b. Judge his reasons for feeling as he does, even when you disagree
c. Ask clarifying questions to help him tell his story
d. Allow him to continue in his angry state without attempting to calm him
17. When holding a progressive discipline session, do not:
a. Adopt a personal, familiar tone
b. Allow the employee to state his side of the situation
c. Engage in dialogue with the employee regarding how he intends to correct the
behavior for which he is being disciplined
d. Hold the session in private
18. Fred asks Bertrand about the validity of various proposals that Bertrand has offered to
resolve a conflict between them. He tells Bertrand that while he thinks his proposals
seem sound, he wants to test them to be sure that any agreement based on them
will last. This behavior best illustrates:
a. Openness
b. Persistence
c. Critical reasoning
d. Integrity
19. .In the course of an argument, Tanya made a few biting comments about the way she felt
Nancy was treating her. Nancy thought Tanya’s comments were unfair and was
tempted to make a cynical, retaliatory remark. Instead, she allowed Tanya to vent
and tried not to take Tanya’s comments personally. Nancy’s behavior best
illustrates:
a. Persistence
b. Self-awareness
c. Openness
d. Critical reasoning
20. Which situation best illustrates “self-awareness�?
a. Marcia asks David why he feels so strongly about the position he is taking.
b. Alicia tries to persuade Marilyn to accept her proposal to settle their dispute.
c. Ellen challenges Theresa that she is not as forthcoming with information as she
could be.
d. Flora tells Mae that she is not “in love with“ her proposal and asks whether Mae
has a better proposal to offer.
21. The "labor relations process" occurs when:
a. government regulates labor-management activities.
b. management and the exclusive bargaining agent (the union) engage in the joint
determination and administration of work rules.
c. historical aspects of organized labor affect current decision.
d. unions find international applications.
e. privately held companies go public.
22. One union estimate found that management consultants hired to counter a union
organizing campaign were:
a. involved in 75 percent of the union organizing campaigns
b. seldom if ever used by corporations.
c. ridiculed by employees who overwhelmingly voted for union representation.
d. none of these
e. all of these
23. The federal government's role in private sector collective bargaining activities is
basically:
a. direct
b. indirect
c. prohibited
d. illegal
e. direct and prohibited.
24. _______ are third-party neutrals hired by the union and management officials to make a
final and binding decision on a disputed issue.
a. Mediators
b. Arbitrators
c. Retired union presidents
d. all of these
e. none of these
25. Which of the following is not a goal of the union?
a. for the company to survive and remain competitive
b. for the company to receive a favorable return on investment
c. for the company to attract, retain, and motivate employees
d. to obtain commitment that there will be no lockout
e. all of these are goals of the union
26. A company's labor relations strategy is determined by:
a. economic conditions.
b. managerial philosophy.
c. management ethics.
d. competition in the industry.
e. all of these.
27. If a company desires to develop a program of positive human resources management,
which of the following practices would the company utilize?
a. reserved parking spaces for managers
b. hiring specialized experienced supervisors from outside the company
c. have the human resources manager report directly to top management
d. enlarge the size of individual company facilities
e. all of these practices
28. Elements of a positive human resources management program include which of the
following?
a. absence of symbols of rank and status
b. overall corporate strength
c. promotion from within
d. competitive pay and benefits
e. all of these
29. A feature that distinguishes the business agent of a craft union from the president of an
industrial union is that he/she:
a. assists in handling grievances.
b. serves as chief administrative official of local union.
c. leads the local union negotiations.
d. administers the union hiring hall.
e. serves as the union’s international representative.
30. Contract negotiations can result in which of the following outcomes?
a. a lock-in by the union to force management into a contract settlement
b. decertification of the union as the employees' bargaining representative
c. a voluntarily negotiated contract settlement
d. a lock-in by management to force the union into a contract settlement
e. all of these
31. A lock-in agreement:
a. is an agreement between unions.
b. requires each union-represented bargaining unit covered by the agreement not to reach
a final contract settlement until all unions covered by the agreement are willing to settle.
c. forces the employer to address the concerns of all bargaining units at the same time.
d. has been ruled unlawful by the NLRB.
e. all of these
32. In anticipating union bargaining proposals, management can consider:
a. recent contract settlements negotiated by the company's competitors.
b. the proceedings of the national union's convention.
c. collective bargaining agreements negotiated by other firms in the same geographical
region.
d. all of these
e. none of these
33. The point (terms) beyond which a bargaining party would prefer no settlement to
settlement on the other party's less favorable proposed terms is termed that party's:
a. termination point.
b. end point.
c. preference point.
d. resistance point.
e. break-even point.
34. The minimum yearly cost of a one-cent-per-hour wage increase at a facility of 1,000
employees is:
a. $1,000.
b. $10,400.
c. $20,800.
d. $202,400
e. approximately $300,000.
35. Mutual gain bargaining is also referred to as:
a. interest-based bargaining.
b. distributive bargaining.
c. good-faith bargaining.
d. intraorganizational bargaining.
e. voluntary bargaining.
36. In the Chamberlain and Kuhn bargaining power model, one party’s bargaining power
can be conceptualized as equal to the other party’s cost of _____ the proposed settlement
terms divided by their cost of _____ to such terms.
a. disagreeing with; agreeing
b. agreeing with; disagreeing
c. seeking to arbitrate; seeking to mediate
d. seeking to mediate; seeking to arbitrate
e. agreeing with; seeking to arbitrate
37. A _________ relationship can occur between the union steward and the first line
supervisor are aware of and guided by the other's situation.
a. "empathetic" relationship
b. "power" relationship
c. "codified" relationship
d. “dependent� relationship
e. none of these
&a
HRM 323 Final Exam
Instructions: Complete the answer key in MS Excel and upload to the course materials forum.
Failure to use the MS Excel Answer Sheet will result in a Zero for the assignment. This exam is
open book and there are no time constraints. Do not share this exam with others or work
together. This is an individual assignment.
1. The five levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, in order from lowest to highest, are:
a. Psychological, safety and security, acceptance, esteem, and self-actualization
b. Physiological, safety and security, self-esteem, acceptance, and actualization
c. Safety and security, psychological, acceptance, esteem, and self-actualization
d. Physiological, safety and security, acceptance, esteem, and self-actualization
2. A manager should not intervene in the following conflict:
a. Two employees become animated as they share dramatically different
viewpoints on how to resolve a workflow problem
b. Two employees have been griping at one another for the past week, whereas
previously they had worked well together
c. An employee shoves another employee hard against a locker
d. Two employees continue to argue with one another about a troublesome
workflow problem, causing a distraction among other workers
3. The five ways that we typically respond to conflict are:
a. Compromise, avoid, acquiesce, collaborate, compete
b. Compete, compare, compromise, avoid, alternate
c. Avoid, collaborate, accommodate, compete, compromise
d. Compromise, avoid, accelerate, accommodate, compare
4. At its heart, conflict involves the following three elements:
a. Dependent parties, incompatible interests, and competition
b. Perception of conflict, independent parties, and incompatible interests
c. Two or more parties, competition, and perception of mutual interests
d. Incompatible interests, competition, and interdependent parties
5. Which example below most accurately reflects a negotiator engaging in integrative
negotiation?
a. The negotiator stands firm on his commitments, is not overly friendly, and
probes the other party as to why she believes her proposed solutions will resolve
the issue. He suggests some alternatives.
b. The negotiator is friendly and easygoing but does not budge when the other
party suggests alternative solutions. He suggests that the other party’s
alternatives are unworkable but doesn’t say why.
c. The negotiator is open to listening to alternative solutions suggested by the
other party but offers no alternatives of his own. He is reserved, quiet, and
serious.
d. The negotiator offers alternatives, which seem self-serving. When the other
party notes this, he scoffs and says they are much better than any alternative
she has suggested. He is otherwise flamboyant and gregarious.
6. Which of the following is one of the three channels of communication?
a. Verbal
b. Concrete object
c. Abstract conceptualization
d. Visual
7. Through which channel do we mostly communicate?
a. The non-verbal channel
b. The para-verbal channel
c. The visual channel
d. None of the above are correct
8. Having feelings, expressing them, hearing them, and responding to them is the meaning of
which of the following?
a. Understanding
b. Concrete object
c. Sympathy
d. Empathy
9. The window on behavior helps us identify:
a. Solutions to problems
b. Problem ownership
c. Major issues that create conflict
d. Roadblocks to effective conflict resolution
10. If you label a behavior as being unacceptable, who “owns� the problem?
a. No one
b. You
c. The other person whose behavior is unacceptable
d. Both you and the person whose behavior is unacceptable
11. One of the best ways to encourage another person to listen to you is to:
a. Listen to her first
b. Rehearse what you will say before confronting the other person about a problem
c. Change your attitude and forget about the problem
d. Communicate your feelings verbally and not behaviorally
12. Which of the following issues would be inappropriate for you to mediate?
a. Another supervisor asks you to mediate a dispute between two employees that
she manages.
b. Two employees that you manage are having difficulty working together. You
have evaluated one employee more favorably than the other based on superior
work performance. Neither employee has received recent discipline.
c. An employee that you manage is in conflict with an employee that another
supervisor manages. The other supervisor is upset with her employee and
defers to you to mediate the issue.
d. Two employees are arguing over a trivial issue. You believe disciplining one of
them may be appropriate because you believe he instigated the argument.
13. When a party is telling his or her story, as a mediator, you should do all the following
except:
a. Remind the other party of the ground rules if he or she is not following them.
b. Ask open-ended questions.
c. Offer tentative proposals, and ask the party to respond to them.
d. Take notes in order to follow up later with questions.
14. When a dispute arises between two employees, one employee expresses reluctance to
engage in mediation. To encourage the employee to engage in mediation, you
should do all the following except:
a. Explain the benefits of mediation for improving the work relationship.
b. Frame the request as an invitation.
c. Explain your expectations regarding teamwork.
d. Respond to the party’s legitimate concerns about meeting with the other party.
15. “Positive discipline� is:
a. The process a manager goes through to evaluate a disciplinary action he is about
to invoke to be certain that the discipline is appropriate
b. The process of giving a reminder to an employee regarding a work rule or
conduct expectation and giving her time to think about whether she feels she
can continue to work for the organization and abide by the rule or expectation
violated
c. The new teaching with respect to how a manager should offer support and
compassion when he or she issues progressive discipline
d. An oxymoron
16. When responding to someone who becomes angry after you have delivered an assertive
confrontation message, you should not:
a. Ask him to take a short break and then return so you can discuss the matter
b. Judge his reasons for feeling as he does, even when you disagree
c. Ask clarifying questions to help him tell his story
d. Allow him to continue in his angry state without attempting to calm him
17. When holding a progressive discipline session, do not:
a. Adopt a personal, familiar tone
b. Allow the employee to state his side of the situation
c. Engage in dialogue with the employee regarding how he intends to correct the
behavior for which he is being disciplined
d. Hold the session in private
18. Fred asks Bertrand about the validity of various proposals that Bertrand has offered to
resolve a conflict between them. He tells Bertrand that while he thinks his proposals
seem sound, he wants to test them to be sure that any agreement based on them
will last. This behavior best illustrates:
a. Openness
b. Persistence
c. Critical reasoning
d. Integrity
19. .In the course of an argument, Tanya made a few biting comments about the way she felt
Nancy was treating her. Nancy thought Tanya’s comments were unfair and was
tempted to make a cynical, retaliatory remark. Instead, she allowed Tanya to vent
and tried not to take Tanya’s comments personally. Nancy’s behavior best
illustrates:
a. Persistence
b. Self-awareness
c. Openness
d. Critical reasoning
20. Which situation best illustrates “self-awareness�?
a. Marcia asks David why he feels so strongly about the position he is taking.
b. Alicia tries to persuade Marilyn to accept her proposal to settle their dispute.
c. Ellen challenges Theresa that she is not as forthcoming with information as she
could be.
d. Flora tells Mae that she is not “in love with“ her proposal and asks whether Mae
has a better proposal to offer.
21. The "labor relations process" occurs when:
a. government regulates labor-management activities.
b. management and the exclusive bargaining agent (the union) engage in the joint
determination and administration of work rules.
c. historical aspects of organized labor affect current decision.
d. unions find international applications.
e. privately held companies go public.
22. One union estimate found that management consultants hired to counter a union
organizing campaign were:
a. involved in 75 percent of the union organizing campaigns
b. seldom if ever used by corporations.
c. ridiculed by employees who overwhelmingly voted for union representation.
d. none of these
e. all of these
23. The federal government's role in private sector collective bargaining activities is
basically:
a. direct
b. indirect
c. prohibited
d. illegal
e. direct and prohibited.
24. _______ are third-party neutrals hired by the union and management officials to make a
final and binding decision on a disputed issue.
a. Mediators
b. Arbitrators
c. Retired union presidents
d. all of these
e. none of these
25. Which of the following is not a goal of the union?
a. for the company to survive and remain competitive
b. for the company to receive a favorable return on investment
c. for the company to attract, retain, and motivate employees
d. to obtain commitment that there will be no lockout
e. all of these are goals of the union
26. A company's labor relations strategy is determined by:
a. economic conditions.
b. managerial philosophy.
c. management ethics.
d. competition in the industry.
e. all of these.
27. If a company desires to develop a program of positive human resources management,
which of the following practices would the company utilize?
a. reserved parking spaces for managers
b. hiring specialized experienced supervisors from outside the company
c. have the human resources manager report directly to top management
d. enlarge the size of individual company facilities
e. all of these practices
28. Elements of a positive human resources management program include which of the
following?
a. absence of symbols of rank and status
b. overall corporate strength
c. promotion from within
d. competitive pay and benefits
e. all of these
29. A feature that distinguishes the business agent of a craft union from the president of an
industrial union is that he/she:
a. assists in handling grievances.
b. serves as chief administrative official of local union.
c. leads the local union negotiations.
d. administers the union hiring hall.
e. serves as the union’s international representative.
30. Contract negotiations can result in which of the following outcomes?
a. a lock-in by the union to force management into a contract settlement
b. decertification of the union as the employees' bargaining representative
c. a voluntarily negotiated contract settlement
d. a lock-in by management to force the union into a contract settlement
e. all of these
31. A lock-in agreement:
a. is an agreement between unions.
b. requires each union-represented bargaining unit covered by the agreement not to reach
a final contract settlement until all unions covered by the agreement are willing to settle.
c. forces the employer to address the concerns of all bargaining units at the same time.
d. has been ruled unlawful by the NLRB.
e. all of these
32. In anticipating union bargaining proposals, management can consider:
a. recent contract settlements negotiated by the company's competitors.
b. the proceedings of the national union's convention.
c. collective bargaining agreements negotiated by other firms in the same geographical
region.
d. all of these
e. none of these
33. The point (terms) beyond which a bargaining party would prefer no settlement to
settlement on the other party's less favorable proposed terms is termed that party's:
a. termination point.
b. end point.
c. preference point.
d. resistance point.
e. break-even point.
34. The minimum yearly cost of a one-cent-per-hour wage increase at a facility of 1,000
employees is:
a. $1,000.
b. $10,400.
c. $20,800.
d. $202,400
e. approximately $300,000.
35. Mutual gain bargaining is also referred to as:
a. interest-based bargaining.
b. distributive bargaining.
c. good-faith bargaining.
d. intraorganizational bargaining.
e. voluntary bargaining.
36. In the Chamberlain and Kuhn bargaining power model, one party’s bargaining power
can be conceptualized as equal to the other party’s cost of _____ the proposed settlement
terms divided by their cost of _____ to such terms.
a. disagreeing with; agreeing
b. agreeing with; disagreeing
c. seeking to arbitrate; seeking to mediate
d. seeking to mediate; seeking to arbitrate
e. agreeing with; seeking to arbitrate
37. A _________ relationship can occur between the union steward and the first line
supervisor are aware of and guided by the other's situation.
a. "empathetic" relationship
b. "power" relationship
c. "codified" relationship
d. “dependent� relationship
e. none of these
&a